A 42-year-old man presents to a walk-in clinic with 3 days of a painful, red left eye with tearing, foreign-body sensation and blurred vision. He has had two similar episodes in the same eye over the past 8 years that settled without a clear diagnosis. He takes no medications, has no allergies and does not wear contact lenses. On examination, visual acuity is 20/40 in the left eye. The left conjunctiva is injected, and fluorescein staining shows a branching linear epithelial defect with terminal bulbs. Corneal sensation is reduced compared with the right eye, the stroma is clear and there is no hypopyon. Creatinine is 82 µmol/L (60-110).
| Heart rate | 76/min |
| Respiratory rate | 14/min |
| Temperature | 36.9 °C |
| O2 saturation | 98%, room air |
| Blood pressure | 124/78 mm Hg |
Question 1 of 28
Urgent ophthalmology referral is arranged. Which of the following are the most appropriate medication options to start today?
Select 2. (0 / 2 selected)
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