A 29-year-old woman, gravida 0, presents to the clinic with a 1-year history of pelvic pain that worsens with menses and has led to missed work. She also reports pain with deep penetration during intercourse and painful bowel movements around her period. She does not wish to become pregnant in the next 2 years, prefers an oral medication, does not smoke, has no migraines, and takes no medications. On examination, the abdomen is soft and the speculum examination is normal. Bimanual examination reveals a fixed, retroverted uterus with tender nodularity of the uterosacral ligaments. Urine pregnancy test is negative, and testing for chlamydia and gonorrhea is negative. Transvaginal ultrasound shows a normal uterus and ovaries with no endometrioma.
| Heart rate | 76/min |
| Respiratory rate | 14/min |
| Temperature | 36.8 °C |
| Blood pressure | 118/72 mm Hg |
Question 1 of 18
Without proceeding to surgery, which of the following are the most appropriate initial medication options for this patient?
Select 2. (0 / 2 selected)
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